this post was submitted on 15 Mar 2026
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[–] Armand1@lemmy.world 99 points 1 week ago* (last edited 1 week ago) (2 children)

Let me guess:

It's because all the money goes to billionaires.

Edit: Pretty much what it says. It's more detailed than that but yeah. Labourers get less, more value is attributed to capital (buildings, land) and collected by the rich.

[–] luthis@lemmy.nz 47 points 1 week ago (1 children)

Yep without even reading the article I was going to guess wage theft and billionaires.

[–] iopq@lemmy.world 9 points 1 week ago (1 children)

Wage theft is not merely being underpaid relative to the work you do. It's actually not paying someone who worked

[–] Vandals_handle@lemmy.world 12 points 1 week ago (1 children)
[–] DomeGuy@lemmy.world 9 points 1 week ago (10 children)

Wage theft as only "not paid what was owed according to current law" is already the biggest form of theft and the least prosecuted.

Please don't help perpetuate capitalist exploitation by blurring it with the "value theft" inherent to capitalism

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[–] CosmoNova@lemmy.world 80 points 1 week ago (1 children)

Who owns the means of production that make industris more efficient? Bingo.

I swear it‘s like people don‘t even know who or what Karl Marx is.

[–] 4am@lemmy.zip 48 points 1 week ago (1 children)

They don’t. Schools teach that “Karl Marx didn’t want anyone to have any money, and to be owned by the state. They quickly ran out of food because no one was motivated to work.”

Why do you think guys who purchased “Truck Nuts” all screech on Twitter about “socialism is when you do all the work and they take all the profits” when that’s exactly what capitalism is and they are too dumb to notice? Why do you think the Tetris movie wasn’t really about Tetris but instead about “Soviets bad”?

[–] vacuumflower@lemmy.sdf.org 8 points 1 week ago (1 children)

Your comment only works for those who don't live in ex-Soviet countries. Because it's western rose-tinted glasses of how USSR just had problems, but was generally fine.

[–] partofthevoice@lemmy.zip 7 points 1 week ago (3 children)

USSR wasn’t really communist though, was it? They tried and failed to make a communist state, no?

[–] BrightCandle@lemmy.world 7 points 1 week ago (3 children)

No country has managed a transition to communism, all of them got turned into various types of authroritarian dictatorships. There is no known method for transitioning to communism and maintaining it.

[–] Doom@lemmy.world 6 points 1 week ago

To be fair, when they tried outside influences actively sabotaged the attempt.

[–] partofthevoice@lemmy.zip 3 points 1 week ago* (last edited 1 week ago)

Would you know whether or not democratic socialism is a good prospect in that regard? A flavor of which that remains capitalistic, but using worker coops instead of the top down monarchistic approach to institutional governance?

[–] SocialMediaRefugee@lemmy.world 1 points 1 week ago (3 children)

Communism in its true form is unsustainable economically and defies basic human sociology and psychology.

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[–] vacuumflower@lemmy.sdf.org 5 points 1 week ago

There were a few years of war communism during, well, the Civil War, but due to all the hunger deaths it might not be what your usual USSR fan wants to think about.

[–] phutatorius@lemmy.zip 2 points 1 week ago

Marx's view was that socialism would develop as an emergent phenomenon (a modern term, not one he used) to correct the contradictions of capitalism. But in both Russia and China, they tried to impose socialism on what were essentially feudal societies. The result was state capitalism, the industrial revolution imposed at gunpoint with no control of the means of production by the workers. And, as capitalist societies, both countries continued the imperialism and nationalism of their predecessor regimes.

And this isn't an after-the-fact critique: contemporary socialists such as Rosa Luxembourg made these observations at the time.

Skipping a developmental stage doesn't work.

[–] captain_solanum@sh.itjust.works 34 points 1 week ago* (last edited 1 week ago) (2 children)

This reads like a lazily written article to me. The em dashes don't increase my enthusiasm. Just in the opening I noticed:

Consumer spending as a share of US GDP moved from roughly 61% in 1980 to about 68% today. technology is not meaningfully expanding the total amount humans consume

Of course, real GDP per capita more than doubled in this time period which means consumer spending also doubled (more since it increased by 7pp). Is most of this billionaire yachts? I have no clue, but if you want to convince me you should try to not claim total amounts when you mean relative amounts.

A physical bookstore in 2000 took in $100 from a book sale and distributed it roughly like this: about 60% went to labor (store staff, publisher employees, authors), 30% went to capital (owner profit, rent), and 10% covered other costs. The money circulated locally through wages.

Amazon today takes in that same $100. The distribution looks fundamentally different: warehouse and tech labor receives roughly 25%, Amazon’s infrastructure and profit captures around 55%, and the remainder flows to publishers and authors. Labor’s share of that transaction dropped by more than half.

... unless you count the publisher and authors like you did for the 2000s data, in which case it decreased from 60% to 45%. And that's persumably not counting the manufacturing of server farms, refinement of minerals, purchase of the actual reading tablet. Amazon has high margins but not 55% margins.

The labor share of US GDP fell from approximately 64% in 1980 to around 58% today — a 6-percentage-point shift. Applied to a $28 trillion economy, that gap represents roughly $1.7 trillion per year that once flowed to workers but now flows to capital.

Once again, since the GDP per capita has doubled the labor dollars per person has actually increased. The label for the $1.7 trillion is similarly misleading, those dollars never "once flowed to workers", they just would have if the economy had grown without any changes to its composition.

If I were the author of the article, perhaps I would say that since 1980, real median wages have only grown by about 20% which seems very slight given the technological improvements made in that time. But how much of that 20% increase would have been possible without technological improvement, and how much has the quality of the things people spend their money on grown in that time? No clue, that's beyond the thinking budget I have for this article.

EDIT: I've decided I'm not going to be overly charitable towards the article since it got an overall positive response from here. I'm very certain the article was written partially or fully by an LLM, and that it was written to advertise the portfolio of whoever wrote it. The article doesn't make a good effort to make an argument capable of convincing anyone who doesn't already agree with the thesis. The counter arguments are bunched up at the end and barely countered at all:

Absolute living standards have genuinely improved. Longer lifespans, better medicines, access to information that would have cost thousands of dollars in library fees

Free services — Google Search, Wikipedia, WhatsApp — create enormous value that doesn’t show up in GDP at all. The consumption ceiling argument partially breaks down for digital goods with near-zero marginal cost.

So does the article's author actually think technological improvements have failed to benefit regular people? They don't seem interested in arguing these benefits are fake, or outweighed by negative aspects. If they want to argue that the 1% have captured most of the growth that technology has given, their article doesn't support that. It gives a lot of explanations why this might happen but the first part meant to cement that it does happen is based on unfounded conclusions which the "What This Isn’t Saying" part then lists reasons not to trust.

[–] ChristerMLB@piefed.social 2 points 1 week ago (1 children)

"real GDP per capita more than doubled in this time period which means consumer spending also doubled"

GDP measures a lot of things that are not consumer spending.

[–] captain_solanum@sh.itjust.works 4 points 1 week ago (1 children)

That's true. My point was that the article is claiming that since the share of GDP which is consumer spending decreased, total consumer spending also decreased. But since GDP per capita increased at the same time, the actual total consumer spending per person increased (the 7 percentage point decrease does not outweigh the doubling of real GDP per capita). This could be misleading in its own right, with the richest spending more and the median spending less even in total numbers, but the article doesn't claim that. It claims that total spending has gone down, which is just not true.

[–] ChristerMLB@piefed.social 4 points 1 week ago (1 children)

ah, duh, yeah - the share shrunk but the pie grew so it's still a bit more cake

[–] GreyEyedGhost@piefed.ca 3 points 1 week ago (1 children)

Giving you an upvote for using three metaphors in a sentence that small. Impressive!

[–] ChristerMLB@piefed.social 2 points 1 week ago

thank you, I am giving you a smiley face back: :)

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[–] Th4tGuyII@fedia.io 33 points 1 week ago (12 children)

All of this is fairly obvious to someone not wearing a MAGA hat.

Productivity per person has increased since the 80's, but wages have not followed - rather they have remained largely stagnant.

As such, the increased profits are instead going into an increasingly small amount of very rich people's pockets

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[–] Tollana1234567@lemmy.today 23 points 1 week ago* (last edited 1 week ago)

stem/"skilled" labor isnt benefiting from improved tech, it all goes to ceos, and billionaire/millionaires. in order o prevent the works from uprising, they use various methods of propaganda to dissaude any confrontation.

[–] bitjunkie@lemmy.world 20 points 1 week ago (1 children)

That's a lot of words for "greed".

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[–] Lexam@lemmy.world 19 points 1 week ago

A rigged system is not a paradox.

[–] Almacca@aussie.zone 13 points 1 week ago

It's not a paradox, just good old fashioned robbery.

[–] Amoxtli@thelemmy.club 9 points 1 week ago

Productivity means doing more relative to input. It is only a paradox to the those who know what it exactly means.

It makes the class pyramid narrower and taller at the top.

[–] SocialMediaRefugee@lemmy.world 6 points 1 week ago (1 children)

Computers cost 92% less than they did in 2000.

Until the current RAM, storage and GPU crisis.

[–] phutatorius@lemmy.zip 5 points 1 week ago

Unless capitalists are forced to share their gains, they won't.

[–] atcorebcor@sh.itjust.works 5 points 1 week ago

The real reason is that monopolies or other forms of market power prevent competitive pricing, wages and rents.

[–] Bazell@lemmy.zip 4 points 1 week ago* (last edited 1 week ago)

Short review directly from this source for those, who don't want to read the whole article:

The Core Problem, Simply Stated

Technology is making distribution dramatically more efficient.

But efficiency gains are being captured by whoever controls the bottleneck — the platform, the marketplace, the search engine — rather than distributed to the workers who enable production or the consumers who fund it.

Without wages, workers can’t consume. Without consumption, capital has nowhere productive to go. So it piles up in buybacks and data centers. GDP growth slows. And we wonder why a world of genuine technological marvels feels economically stagnant for most people.

That’s the paradox.

As AI accelerates the substitution of capital for labor, the dynamics described here are likely to intensify rather than resolve. The question isn’t whether the technology works — it clearly does. The question is whether the institutions and incentive structures around it will evolve fast enough to distribute what it creates.

That’s the harder problem. And it’s not a technology problem at all.

[–] org@lemmy.org 4 points 1 week ago (1 children)
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[–] Don_alForno@feddit.org 4 points 1 week ago

The reason is rich people.

[–] InsightSeeker@thelemmy.club 1 points 1 week ago

This isn’t just a “technology redistributes value” story; it’s a market design and incentive problem. Platforms didn’t accidentally capture the gains; they were structurally positioned to own demand, data, and distribution.

Also, the “consumption ceiling” feels directionally right for physical goods, but less convincing for digital and AI-native categories, which can expand usage in ways that traditional economics underestimates.

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