Undefined is more precise. 0/0 being an "indeterminate form" refers to expressions of the form lim(x->c) f(x)/g(x) where lim(x->c)f(x) = lim(x->c)g(x) = 0.
kogasa
joined 2 years ago
This doesn't clearly identify a problem IMO. Division by a number is defined as multiplication by the multiplicative inverse, and 0 has no multiplicative inverse because 0x = 1 has no solutions.
Topologist ass comment
autism creature
I have heard this phrase used to describe Yippee Mans. I googled "yippee" and one of the first results was from nationalautismresourcs.com so it checks out: https://nationalautismresources.com/blog/what-is-the-yippeetbh-creature/
Odin75 with HMX Macchiato switches. No exotic layouts or anything, just a good board
The function can touch the asymptote, it just needs to eventually come (and stay) within any given finite distance from the asymptote. sin(x)/x has a horizontal asymptote at y=0 and it crosses it infinitely many times. Mental health implications are unclear.
Missing from that summary is the fact that he's a confirmed moron.
No, that's what induction is. You prove the base case (e.g. n=1) and then prove that the (n+1) case follows from the (n) case. You may then conclude the result holds for all n, since we proved it holds for 1, which means it holds for 2, which means it holds for 3, and so on.
It's not actually claiming that all horses are the same color, it's an example of a flawed induction argument
For an alternative that doesn't sound insane, try turkey a la king. Turkey in a creamy sauce on puff pastry or toast.
They're already doing this or may as well be
There's not much coherent algebraic structure left with these "definitions." If Ωx=ΩΩ=Ω then there is no multiplicative identity, hence no such thing as a multiplicative inverse.