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Why did Hitler choose the Jews to go after the most? Kind of seems random like tossing a dart on religions or sex or whatever and it hit the jewish people? Or was there something bigger? (lemmy.world)

submitted 4 months ago by Patnou@lemmy.world to c/askhistorians@lemmy.world

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[–] flamingo_pinyata@sopuli.xyz 10 points 4 months ago (2 children)

He latched onto existing prejudices against Jews that were popular in Germany since the late 19th century. Basically those ideas were already around but Hitler amplified them like 1000%. It was convenient I guess.

[–] andros_rex@lemmy.world 1 points 1 month ago

~~since the late 19th century~~

Since the 2nd century.

[–] BCsven@lemmy.ca 1 points 4 months ago

They were often money lenders by trade, and I think he blamed their woes on this somehow