this post was submitted on 11 Apr 2025
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[–] [email protected] 2 points 1 day ago (2 children)

Inifinitesimaly small increments of gayness must exist and thus the gayest person as well.

[–] [email protected] 5 points 1 day ago (3 children)

This is not necessarily true. The subset [0, 1) of the real numbers has an upper bound of 1, but it does not contain its upper bound, therefore there is no maximal element. How matter how gay you are, it's always possible to be a little gayer.

[–] [email protected] 7 points 1 day ago

True, but for any finite amount of numbers chosen from the interval [0, 1), one of them will be the highest (or several share the max value)

[–] [email protected] 4 points 1 day ago* (last edited 1 day ago)

Still, there will be someone assigned a number of gayness from [0,1) that is closest to 1, at any given moment and if there are two dimensions we could find highest and lowest from both and assign weights to each dimension to reduce it to one dimension

I mean to be honest only [0,1) ensures that there can be single gayest because if it was discrete then there could be millions having the same value of 16 for example. So maybe there is someone having 0.99939339 and in algorithm of finding gayest they were the highest at the given moment. Of course someone may be born with 0.99939340 the next day. But what about the floating gay precision? Will we run out of gaymory?

[–] [email protected] 1 points 1 day ago

Yes. But the number of humans is finite. With inifinitesimal differences someone still has the biggest gay score.

[–] [email protected] 2 points 1 day ago

We just need better science and tools with which to measure more precise levels of gayness.