this post was submitted on 07 Apr 2025
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If I want to buy wine from you it will now cost $15-17 if I wanted to get that wine and if you wanted to supply it. How is that cost not being passed directly to the consumer and ultimately being paid by the consumer? If you paid the tariff price and kept the retail price the same then that would be a whole different situation, but that isn’t going to happen. The end customer will pay the excess.
We are eating the tariff on the boat that’s in the water and refusing to carry it after that.
And what will you do when there is no boat coming that doesn’t offer a tariff-ridden bottle of wine? Like, maybe a month or two from now? Will you never carry international wine or will you add a markup to it? If anyone carries an international product do you expect they will eat the extra cost or add a markup to it? If they add a markup to it, who is paying for it? YOU.
I gave you an example of what you said. no one is doing. We are doing just that. I dn’t need to engage with your hypothetical situation to show that in some cases the full value of the tariff is not being passed on.
Yeah ok that doesn’t make any sense. It’s not a hypothetical, you’re just not capable of seeing literally a foot in front of you. Your one boat of wine you’re going to eat the costs on is your answer for how it’s going to be. Got it. Thanks for the great insight. Problem solved.
“If you make everything more expensive for suppliers, don’t you think the costs will get passed on directly to consumers?”
“Whoa bro quit hitting me with random hypotheticals.”
You said no one will ever eat the tariff. I gave an example of that exact thing happening. You are now trying to create hypothetical situations where your statement could still be correct rather than facing the reality that you made a too broad and inaccurate statement.
Why are you trying to make this personal?