this post was submitted on 23 Jan 2026
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[–] 73ms@sopuli.xyz 1 points 13 hours ago (1 children)

we were talking about laws that exist in Germany and perhaps somewhere else too. Are you commenting on the German law specifically and familiar enough with it to say it can be superseded by a contract?

[–] DarkMetatron@feddit.org 1 points 10 hours ago (1 children)

It is not superseding anything, why would it? It is not doing anything that is not clearly defined in the law. It is just bundling to types of contracts together.

I fear we have some kind of missunderstanding somewhere and I am not sure how to resolve that.

[–] 73ms@sopuli.xyz 1 points 8 hours ago (1 children)

Again because a law can either be unnegotiable or something that can be superseded by a contract. Anyway, I was just wondering what type it is in this particular case. What you seem to be saying is that it can in fact be superseded if it is possible to enter into a contract where you agree to waive those rights.

[–] DarkMetatron@feddit.org 1 points 7 hours ago

It is the superseding that I don't find correct, but maybe it is just a nuance of the word that i am missing.

But I would say, in some degree, yes.