this post was submitted on 28 Aug 2024
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United States | News & Politics
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The world empire ruling over humanity with an iron fist, who's founding act was the liquidation of an entire continents worth of people is somehow not "full blown fascist" yet.
Can you explain in detail why there are only two viable political parties?
Troll bait taken...
Because that's the way it's been since 1852. It was the same way before 1852 but at least one of the parties had a different name. The system would need a structural change (like ranked choice voting) to enable a viable 3rd party to exist.
Yup, that makes perfect sense when you put it like that. This is precisely how Germany avoided fascism in 1930s, they just voted for the lesser evil and everything worked out great.
Amazing counterpoint you've mustered there. Maybe read my follow up comment before making a clown of yourself?
It's funny how no matter how your sarcasm is interpreted, it's still factually wrong.
It's funny how you expose yourself as being historically illiterate. German nazis never won more than 37% of the vote while there were still democratic elections in place. First chapter here discusses the rise of fascists in Italy and nazis in Germany. Let's take a look at what actually happened.
French liberals siding with NR against the NPF is a perfect modern example of history repeating as well.
you've made a self referential comment I see