this post was submitted on 23 Jul 2025
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Literally any academic paper on the matter where they use it as a descriptor, or I dunno the dictionary examples I've already provided that use it again as a descriptor. The reader adds bias, no one can help that but the insult isn't intended.
In all cases there is no explicit insult it's left to context and the readers perception.
Can you do the same with mansplaining? I'd say no.
Literally the usage in this quoted text. Unless you're saying that you're bigoted for using it in that context.
You don't think I in intended the term to be an insult in that context? I'd say you're wrong and you haven't been listening.