this post was submitted on 23 Jul 2025
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I'd love to know how seeking clarification implies your my or anyone else's ability to say what they want. I know I haven't said or knows that at worst all I want is to know how making assumptions based on sex isn't bigoted. I get how condescending to someone because they are a woman is bigoted, can you see how assuming someone is a bigot rather than ignorant based solely on their sex is by definition bigoted?
Max comment depth reached. Bringing this back up to where it was first relevant:
To call a behavior "misogynistic" is to express a low opinion of it, or detract from the character of the person exhibiting that behavior.
Ok?
No. Look at the definition.
Context implies at times a low opinion though that is not express to the meaning nor does it imply the word is derogatory.
Discriminatory ≠ derogatory.
I can't think of a single example of a time where a woman would be assessing a man's behavior towards her, deem it to be misogynistic, but not as a low opinion.
Sure, now is that the only way to use that descriptor? No.
Can you find a way to use "mansplaining" that isn't using the term derogatorily? No because it's an insult that happens to be a descriptor while misandrist or misogynist are descriptors that can be insults.
Can you think of an example?
An example of what using the phrase misogynistic without it being derogatory or your weird little setup?
My entire point is you cannot use mansplaining without it being an insult thusly it's a sexist slur.
Yes.
Literally any academic paper on the matter where they use it as a descriptor, or I dunno the dictionary examples I've already provided that use it again as a descriptor. The reader adds bias, no one can help that but the insult isn't intended.
In all cases there is no explicit insult it's left to context and the readers perception.
Can you do the same with mansplaining? I'd say no.