this post was submitted on 14 Jun 2025
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[–] AES_Enjoyer@reddthat.com 1 points 1 day ago (2 children)

I don't abide by ICJ rulings, I abide by credible reporting and evidence. Compare the civilian deaths ratio in the Ukraine invasion (however bad they may be) to the one in Palestine

[–] sqgl@sh.itjust.works 1 points 1 day ago* (last edited 1 day ago)

Yes a higher civilian death ratio in Gaza but the Ukraine military are not in civilian areas.

Admittedly Russia actually targets civilians but it is with long range missiles and drones, most of which get intercepted.

That article says Ireland is also trying to expand the definition of genocide to include Ukrainian deaths. I don't know why it does not fit the definition currently; perhaps because Russia are not trying to wipe out the Ukrainian population? I dunno. Get back to us if you find out.

[–] sqgl@sh.itjust.works 1 points 1 day ago (1 children)

Am just pointing out the legal definition of the word regardless of whether courts are just

[–] AES_Enjoyer@reddthat.com 1 points 1 day ago (1 children)

Yeah but according to the current legal definition, looking at the evidence, I can confidently claim it's a genocide

[–] sqgl@sh.itjust.works 1 points 1 day ago* (last edited 1 day ago) (1 children)

No, not according to the current definition. That is why Ireland is trying to change it. Words change all the time so it is possible.

That would equate Gaza and Ukraine with the Holocaust, Rwanda, Cambodia, the nature and magnitude of which were very different. Perhaps they could create a new word for those?

[–] AES_Enjoyer@reddthat.com 1 points 23 hours ago (2 children)

equate Gaza and Ukraine with

Huh? Gaza and Ukraine are completely different conflicts. Ukraine is a military invasion, Gaza is a genocide.

No, not according to the current definition

Can you post the current definition? I'm happy to argue about that, because i do maintain that it's a genocide in the case of Gaza because there's a manifest intent to eliminate an entire people, unlike the case of Ukraine.

[–] sqgl@sh.itjust.works 1 points 5 hours ago* (last edited 5 hours ago)

Gaza and Ukraine are completely different conflicts.

Am just passing on what Ireland is doing.

Ireland will not be asserting if genocide is being committed, but asserting its interpretation of the Genocide Convention.

This is the same approach taken by Ireland in the Ukraine v Russia case.

[–] sqgl@sh.itjust.works 1 points 6 hours ago

The current definition of Genocide is set out in Article II of the Genocide Convention:

Genocide means any of the following acts committed with intent to destroy, in whole or in part, a national, ethnical, racial or religious group, as such:
(a) Killing members of the group;
(b) Causing serious bodily or mental harm to members of the group;
(c) Deliberately inflicting on the group conditions of life calculated
to bring about its physical destruction in whole or in part;
(d) Imposing measures intended to prevent births within the group;
(e) Forcibly transferring children of the group to another group.

To constitute genocide, it also needs to be established that the victims are deliberately targeted — not randomly — because of their real or perceived membership of one of the four groups protected under the Convention. This means that the target of destruction must be the group, as such, or even a part of it, but not its members as individuals.

https://www.un.org/en/genocideprevention/documents/Genocide%20Convention-FactSheet-ENG.pdf