this post was submitted on 23 Jul 2025
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Yeah and I'm asking them to use their definition in comparison, how exactly is saying "he's mansplaining" substantially different then "dei hire".
Ed:
https://lemmy.nullspace.lol/comment/66720
Tl;Dr they're ok saying sexist things because they are a vile human being.
To be clear, no you weren't. Hence the confusion.
But since you've clarified: obviously using any term to unfairly accuse someone of being or doing something is a bad thing. Is that a real question?
That's exactly what I was doing hence the twice repeated question, you can claim a lot of things but that isn't one that has legs.
Correct, both are based on assumptions that are as offensive as the assumption that they're mansplaining or a dei hire or whatever.
My point is that you can't use either without yourself being bigoted enough to come to a conclusion based on bigoted assumptions so how are they substantially different?
Them:
You:
They didn't make any assumptions, nor did they explain anything that "requires prior knowledge" -- because they gave a definition of a term, not a scenario. Your questioning only makes sense if they were talking about a scenario. It makes no sense as a follow up to a definition.
Anyways, that's just meta noise.
You're free to call women bigoted for how they feel about their lived experience regarding condescension from men. Just as I'm free to judge that as incel behaviour.