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This is side-stepping my point completely.
I said:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Olympic_records_in_athletics
It is a fact that there are gender differences in the outcomes in competitions.
To what extent that these change when a person transitions is unknown and should be studied. It is simply dogma to believe that the moment a person has a prescription for HRT they no longer have an advantage.
Even among cisgender athletes there are genetic conditions and medications that disqualify them from competition. It is simply dogma to believe that the medication and treatments that transgender people receive have no effect on performance (and also, somehow, have the immediate effect of removing the advantage that cis men have over cis women).
Yes, this a wonderful example of dogmatic reasoning "If you believe this, then you have to believe this or else you're ~~a heretic~~ unreasonable and akin to a flat-earther. It isn't reasoning based on objective facts, nor does their conclusion logically follow.
As an example, I believe that cis men are men and also that cis men who use PEDs should not compete. It would be just as silly for someone arguing on the side of PED use to say that 'You either believe that men should be able to compete in sports, or you don't and there is no reasoning with you'. It's nonsense, it isn't reasoning it's intellectual bullying.
I absolutely support trans rights, that doesn't mean that I will allow another person to simply dictate my opinions. If a person unable to have a conversation and simply tries to dictate the things that I must believe then that person is wrong regardless of what other beliefs that they have which I agree.
You just replied to a post with several studies about exactly that.
On top of that, you are ignoring the balance of justice and ethics here. Unless there is significant evidence that having undergone male puberty prior to transition (this already doesn’t describe all trans women athletes) gives a significant advantage, fairness dictates that trans women should be included in women’s sports. The harm done isn’t justifiable by a “maybe.”
There is significant evidence that people who have undergone male puberty have an advantage. You can see this in the list of Olympic world records.
The question that has to be answered, and encoded into the rules of competitive sports, is: what causes this advantage to erased by transitioning, how can we verify that this is happening to an individual and what rules should exist to cover these cases in order to ensure fairness.
I don't get why this is controversial.
For example:
If HRT is responsible for lowering testosterone which removes the advantage, then how long does it take to become effective? Should a woman who started taking HRT yesterday be able to compete in women's sports, or should they have to wait for some period of time?
If someone stops taking HRT, does the advantage return? If so, how soon and to what extent? How can we verify that an individual isn't stopping HRT or abusing their medication to obtain an advantage?
All competitions have rules to ensure fairness and that includes things like understanding how medical treatments or genetics affect performance and rules. There are many medications and treatments that athletes simply cannot use while competing for the sake of competitive fairness, this should apply to all athletes and all medication or treatments.
Can you at least attempt to skim the studies linked to you before replying from the same place of ignorance? I had a similar opinion to you when this issue was first brought to my attention; unlike you, I put in effort to educate myself.
Please, read them and others like them. Literally, most of your gotcha questions you asked are already answered in the studies. We have a good amount of objective data on this topic.
Because of people like you :)